Macbeth
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Question about his downfall
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Monica
(last edited Apr 15, 2014 05:42PM)
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Apr 13, 2014 07:44AM

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I'm not so sure I agree it was sleep deprivation.

I'd suggest starting off by familiarizing yourself with the effects of sleep deprivation (for example, on the cognitive effects).
The hallucinations are an obvious starting point, but there are also mood swings, forgetfulness, anxiety, and loss of alertness/reflexes (possibly causing him to lose his final combat).
The wikipedia article I linked to also has this interesting bit under executive function:
In a study that involved risk-taking analysis of drivers who had been driving for 12 hours straight, it was found that they were more willing to make hazardous maneuvers and were reluctant to adopt any form of a cautious driving style
I'm sure it's not too difficult to make the case that Macbeth was less than duly cautious.

No sense in proving something that isn't. That leads to the "r" word. Anyway, I'll not go there. I'm sure there's a few supporting details that could imply that Macbeth's actions were the result of sleep deprivation, but I would argue it's more likely that he was too easily persuaded by his wife. Often a strong love for someone can throw the veil over the eyes, one just thick enough to filter out the truth, leaving behind only vague shapes of what is. He loved the wrong person too much.

Whatever you do in literary criticsm must be based on the text. If you have a theory about sleep deprivation leading to Macbeth's hallucinations and his subsequent downfall, then you must go through the text looking for evidence.
For example, in act 2 scene 1, on his night watch, Fleance reports than the moon is down. Banquo remarks that "she goes down at twelve", meaning it is already past midnight.
Macbeth then appears and they talk of the three sisters before Banquo retires to bed. Macbeth tells a servant to ask his wife to "strike upon the bell" "when my drink is ready". We may assume this is a supposed to be a sleeping draught.
It is at this point that he ses the dagger before him.
Go through the whole text looking for evidence like this and you might be able to prove your theory.

I'd suggest starting off by familiarizing yourself with the effects of sleep dep..."
I don't think Shakespeare had ready access to on-line resumés of psychology research papers. Try Hollinshed.

I will drain him dry as hay:Now, she's talking about the husband of a woman who insulted her, not MacBeth, but clearly it's the kind of thing that Shakespeare was presenting as a concept. The sailor is the master of the Tiger (a ship) and if the captain of a ship, then why not a usurper king?
Sleep shall neither night nor day
Hang upon his pent-house lid;
He shall live a man forbid:
Weary se'nnights nine times nine
Shall he dwindle, peak and pine:
The rest of the play is rife with sleep, dream/nightmare talk and hints about the wakefulness of the leads.
So, I'd start right there: Act 1.

Hi Gags!
At first I thought you were using Hamlet's name as code for the villain in the Scottish play. Then I saw the unspeakable name below and realised you were probably sleep-writing.
Good point about sleep symbolism recurring throughout the play.

Edit: Plus, I'm on enough cold medicine to cure Ebola--though it doesn't seem able to fix me up.

Anyone who is seeking to find evidence of sleep deprivation in Shakespeare probably isn't an Originalist.

Yeah, keep an eye on that, Gary. You know the
!

Whatever you do in literary criticsm must be based on the text. If you have a theory about sleep deprivation leading to Macbeth's hallucinations and his subsequent downfall, then you mus..."
Thank you. I will do that!

Thanks for the help!


You caught me in the middle of re-reading Macbeth for another project (I know it's the one play of Shakespeare that's short enough to read comfortably at a single session, but because of various reasons, I'm having to go bit by bit). If you can wait another day or two, I'll come back with a fuller answer to your question.
Just for the moment though, I don't think you can say the hallucinations actually led to anything. It might be better to think of them in a different way from, say, their equivalent in a Hollywood film. If the hallucinations are only in his head, where are the witches? Banquo sees them, too, then he becomes a ghost. And what happens to Lady Macbeth?

Thanks for your opinion! I'll think of something else because you do have a point.

It's just that there is so much topsy turvy going on in the play, "fair is foul and foul is fair" etc. Take "Birnam wood remove to Dunsinane", which is not supernatural but appears so to Macbeth.
Are you working on this for a college paper?

No, it's only a high school paper - grade 11.

I did Macbeth in what we call the fifth year, for my O levels. 1972, going on sixteen!
Your teachers will appreciate you closely following the text, as I said before. There are inconsistencies of time in the play (there often are in Shakespeare) but it's possible to show that both Mabeth and his wife deprive themselves of sleep in their murder of Duncan.
For example, on the night of the murder, Banquo tells Macbeth he has dreamt of the witches, so he has managed to fit some sleep in. But Macbeth hasn't. Referencing four or five points like that should be enough to make a theoretical case... and prove you have put the time in studying the play!

Great, thank you! You've been a lot of help. :)



No, Dormilona, he had a set of principles, he CHOOSES to ignore them. After he meets the witches, Macbeth has a soliloquy where he articulates the contrast between his reason, don't kill the king, and his appetite, kill the king, become king. Therefore, he has a moral marrow. Lady Macbeth's persuasion (be a man) turns him from the better angels of his nature. THIS is the tragedy because thing could have been better IF Macbeth had CHOSEN to follow his reason and not his appetite. (He admits, to himself, before Lady Macbeth persuades him, that he can't kill the king.) IF he "lacks any set of principles", if he possessed an ignorance of morality, then things could not had been better. "Macbeth", in this case, would be a calamitous melodrama: a misguided individual by an act of fate enacts a heinous act due to his or her innate immorality NOT choice. Thus, things could not have been better. The notion of choice is salient to the tragic moment. Aristotle notes in "The Poetics", "good as well as evil lie within our grasp". If we CHOOSE evil, if we turn our ethics away from reasonable good, and then realize our choice, a choice that cannot be reversed (the revolt against Macbeth), the tragic moment is fulfilled. Notice that every (decent) Shakespearean tragedy includes the moment of what the Greeks called "anagnorsis": the moment where "ignorance gives way to knowledge". The tragic hero is ignorant of the magnitude of their choices in upsetting the cosmic order (notice the "storm" imagery in "Macbeth"), and when they come to understand the calamity of their choices and that other choices could have avoided the universe they have created, this is tragic.

Thank you so much, Dutch, for enriching my understanding. Your thoughtful words make more sense than my glib ones and I'm grateful for the light you bring. I need to go back and read the play. It's been a few decades.
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